EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Which single Security Blade can be turned on to block both malicious files from being downloaded as well as block websites known to host malware?

Question2: Which option would allow you to make a backup copy of the OS and Check Point configuration, without stopping Check Point processes?

Question3: Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.

Question4: Consider the Global Properties following settings:

The selected option "Accept Domain Name over UDP (Queries)" means:

Question5: What protocol is specifically used for clustered environments?

Question6: What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?

Question7: Which tool is used to enable ClusterXL?

Question8: Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?

Question9: Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

Question10: Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

Question11: Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?

Question12: Customer's R80 management server needs to be upgraded to R80.10. What is the best upgrade method when the management server is not connected to the Internet?

Question13: What is the purpose of a Clean-up Rule?

Question14: Which of the following is used to enforce changes made to a Rule Base?

Question15: Which deployment adds a Security Gateway to an existing environment without changing IP routing?

Question16: To enforce the Security Policy correctly, a Security Gateway requires:

Question17: Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.

What is the most likely reason?

Question18: Which Threat Prevention Software Blade provides protection from malicious software that can infect your network computers?

Question19: Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.

Question20: How many layers make up the TCP/IP model?

Question21: Which firewall daemon is responsible for the FW CLI commands?

Question22: What licensing feature is used to verify licenses and activate new licenses added to the License and Contracts repository?

Question23: From the Gaia web interface, which of the following operations CANNOT be performed on a Security Management Server?

Question24: Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as _______.

Question25: Which GUI tool can be used to view and apply Check Point licenses?

Question26: What are the three components for Check Point Capsule?

Question27: Which message indicates IKE Phase 2 has completed successfully?

Question28: Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

Question29: How are the backups stored in Check Point appliances?

Question30: Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.

Question31: What default layers are included when creating a new policy layer?

Question32: The CDT utility supports which of the following?

Question33: Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

Question34: After a new Log Server is added to the environment and the SIC trust has been established with the SMS what will the gateways do?

Question35: Fill in the blanks: A ____ license requires an administrator to designate a gateway for attachment whereas a _____ license is automatically attached to a Security Gateway.

Question36: With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

Question37: What Identity Agent allows packet tagging and computer authentication?

Question38: Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by ?

Question39: In what way is Secure Network Distributor (SND) a relevant feature of the Security Gateway?

Question40: Which option in a firewall rule would only match and allow traffic to VPN gateways for one Community in common?

Question41: Access roles allow the firewall administrator to configure network access according to:

Question42: When connected to the Check Point R80 Management Server using the SmartConsole the first administrator to connect has a lock on:

Question43: Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

Question44: Fill in the blank: Once a certificate is revoked from the Security GateWay by the Security Management Server, the certificate information is _______.

Question45: The SIC Status "Unknown" means

Question46: Which icon in the WebUI indicates that read/write access is enabled?

Question47: URL Filtering cannot be used to:

Question48: Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?

Question49: When should you generate new licenses?

Question50: You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp with an R80 Check Point estate. You have received a call by one of the management users stating that they are unable to browse the Internet with their new tablet connected to the company Wireless. The Wireless system goes through the Check Point Gateway. How do you review the logs to see what the problem may be?

Question51: The "Hit count" feature allows tracking the number of connections that each rule matches. Will the Hit count feature work independently from logging and Track the hits even if the Track option is set to "None"?

Question52: Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

Question53: What is UserCheck?

Question54: Which tool allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS?

Question55: Which of the following Windows Security Events will NOT map a username to an IP address in Identity Awareness?

Question56: You want to verify if there are unsaved changes in GAiA that will be lost with a reboot. What command can be used?

Question57: Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

Question58: You want to store the GAiA configuration in a file for later reference. What command should you use?

Question59: What is the Transport layer of the TCP/IP model responsible for?

Question60: Most Check Point deployments use Gaia but which product deployment utilizes special Check Point code (with unification in R81.10)?

Question61: Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?

Question62: Which of the following is NOT supported by Bridge Mode Check Point Security Gateway

Question63: Traffic from source 192.168.1.1 is going to www.google.com. The Application Control Blade on the gateway is inspecting the traffic. Assuming acceleration is enable which path is handling the traffic?

Question64: Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?

Question65: Which of the following is a new R80.10 Gateway feature that had not been available in R77.X and older?

Question66: Which statement is TRUE of anti-spoofing?

Question67: What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

Question68: Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

Question69: You have created a rule at the top of your Rule Base to permit Guest Wireless access to the Internet. However, when guest users attempt to reach the Internet, they are not seeing the splash page to accept your Terms of Service, and cannot access the Internet. How can you fix this?

Question70: Which of the following is used to initially create trust between a Gateway and Security Management Server?

Question71: Which Check Point software blade monitors Check Point devices and provides a picture of network and security performance?

Question72: What is the most complete definition of the difference between the Install Policy button on the SmartConsole's tab, and the Install Policy within a specific policy?

Question73: Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?

Question74: Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____________.

Question75: You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?

Question76: True or False: In a Distributed Environment, a Central License can be installed via CLI on a Security Gateway

Question77: You have successfully backed up your Check Point configurations without the OS information. What command would you use to restore this backup?

Question78: Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.

Question79: When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

Question80: Which of the following blades is NOT subscription-based and therefore does not have to be renewed on a regular basis?

Question81: When should you generate new licenses?

Question82: From SecureXL perspective, what are the tree paths of traffic flow:

Question83: Which of the following is NOT a tracking log option in R80.x?

Question84: Security Zones do no work with what type of defined rule?

Question85: What SmartEvent component creates events?

Question86: Which one of these features is NOT associated with the Check Point URL Filtering and Application Control Blade?

Question87: Using ClusterXL, what statement is true about the Sticky Decision Function?

Question88: Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?

Question89: Tom has connected to the Management Server remotely using SmartConsole and is in the process of making some Rule Base changes, when he suddenly loses connectivity. Connectivity is restored shortly afterward. What will happen to the changes already made?

Question90: Which command shows the installed licenses?

Question91: What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?

Question92: Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?

Question93: Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?

Question94: Which is a suitable command to check whether Drop Templates are activated or not?

Question95: Log query results can be exported to what file format?

Question96: Fill in the blank: In order to install a license, it must first be added to the ____________.

Question97: One of major features in R80.x SmartConsole is concurrent administration. Which of the following is NOT possible considering that AdminA, AdminB, and AdminC are editing the same Security Policy?

Question98: Administrator Dave logs into R80 Management Server to review and makes some rule changes. He notices that there is a padlock sign next to the DNS rule in the Rule Base.

What is the possible for this?

Question99: What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status:

Choose the BEST answer.

Question100: Fill in the blank: Back up and restores can be accomplished through_________.

Question101: You noticed that CPU cores on the Security Gateway are usually 100% utilized and many packets were dropped. You don't have a budget to perform a hardware upgrade at this time. To optimize drops you decide to use Priority Queues and fully enable Dynamic Dispatcher. How can you enable them?

Question102: Which of the following is the most secure means of authentication?

Question103: What Check Point technologies deny or permit network traffic?

Question104: Which of the following is used to extract state related information from packets and store that information in state tables?

Question105: Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?

Question106: What is a reason for manual creation of a NAT rule?